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Forensic Medicine and Toxicology Model Paper King Edward Medical University

SEND UP EXAMINATION: MBBS, 3RD YEAR.
FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DEPTT, KEMU
TOTAL MARKS: 60
  1. 1. a) Compare and contrast incised and lacerated wound on the skull. 4
b) What is ricochet phenomenon? 3
2.Enumerate the conditions necessary for a valid contract for medical treatment. 7
  1. 3. Classify antidotes giving examples for each type. Write mechanism of action of chelating agents. 6
  2. 4. A dead body of a middle aged, stout man is brought in the forensic medicine and toxicology dept with history of gunshot wound at the right temple. How will you proceed with the examination to determine

a) The distance of discharge of weapon 10
b) Manner of death 5
c) Whether it is an entry or exit wound 5
  1. 5. A skeleton was presented by the local police in the city morgue for autopsy examination:
    1. I. What should be the protocol for autopsy examination of this skeleton? 10
II. How will you establish the identity of this skeleton? 10


……….







SEND UP EXAMINATION: MBBS, 3RD YEAR.
MCQs Time: 45 Minutes Marks: 30
CHOOSE THE SINGLE BEST ANSWER FROM THE FOLLOWING:
  1. 1. CADAVERIC SPASM INDICATES:
a) LAST ACT BEFORE DEATH
b) CAUSE OF DEATH
c) MODE OF DEATH
d) FATAL PERIOD
e) POSTMORTEM PERIOD

  1. 2. A DEAD BODY IS FOUND FLOATING IN BRB CANAL DURING THE MONTH OF JUNE. THE PROBABLE TIME TAKEN BY THE BODY TO COME TO THE SURFACE OF WATER AFTER DEATH IS:
a) 6------8h
b) 10-----12h
c) 22-----24h
d) 2-----4 DAYS
e) MORE THAN 4 DAYS

  1. 3. A PERSON IS HIT BY A MAN ON THE LEFT SIDE OF THE FACE AND LOST A MOLAR TOOTH. UNDER QISAS& DIYAT ORDINANCE THE NATURE OF THE INJURY IS:
a) SHAJJAH KHAFIFA
b) JURH JAIFA
c) ITLAF-E-UDW
d) ITLAFE SALAHIAT-UDW
e) SHAJJAH MUNAQQILA

  1. 4. THE COMMONEST WOUND FOR CLAMING A FALSE CHARGE IS A (AN):
a) STAB
b) BRUISE
c) ABRASION
d) GUNSHOT WOUND
e) INCISED WOUND

  1. 5. COLLECTION OF INJURED EPITHELIUM, DRIED BLOOD AND LYMPH IS:
a) PUS
b) SCAB
c) TRANSUDATE
d) EXUDATE
e) HAEMATOMA


  1. 6. TO INDUCE EMESIS APOMORPHINE IS GIVEN IN A DOSE OF:
a) 6mg im
b) 5mg im
c) 5mg iv
d) 6mg sc
e) 5mg orally

  1. 7. THE GREATER AMOUNT OF THE INGESTED POISON IS ELIMINATED BY:
a) PERSPIRATION AND RESPIRATION
b) EXSESSIVE SALIVATION
c) RESPIRATION
d) VOMITING
e) VOMITING AND DIORRHOEA

  1. 8. BARTONIAN LINES ARE PRESENT IN POISONING WITH:
a) PHOSPHORUS
b) LEAD
c) IODINE
d) CHLORINE
e) NITRIC ACID

  1. 9. RES IPSA LOQUITRE MEANS :
a) SERIOUSLY ILL PATIENT
b) THINGS SPEAK FOR THEMSELVES
c) SKIN CHANGES IN DROWING
d) NEGLIGENCE ON PART OF THE ANESTHETIST
e) MALPRAXIS

10. PRESENCE OF DIATOMS HELPS IN DIAGNOSING DEATH DUE TO:
a) ELECTROCUTION
b) ASPHYXIA
c) DROWNING
d) OPIUM INGESTION
e) SNAKE BITE

11. MACERATION IS SEEN WHEN THE:
a) DEATH IS INTRAUTERINE
b) DEAD BODY IS BURNT
c) CAUSE OF DEATH IS DROWING
d) PERSON IS STARVED BEFORE DEATH
e) BODY IS DEEPLY BURRIED
12. DISULFIRAM IS USEFUL IN:
a) MERCURY POISONING
b) ALCOHOLISM
c) MORPHINOMANIA
d) PLUMBISM
e) BARBITURATE AUTOMATISM

13. GASTRIC LAVAGE IS CONTRAINDICATED IN POISONING WITH:
a) MINERAL ACIDS
b) PHENOL
c) ORGANOPHOSPHATES
d) ARSENIC COMPOUNDS
e) SALICYLATES

14. TOLERANCE IS PRODUCED WITH:
a) MERCURIAL COMPOUNDS
b) DIACETYL MORPHINE
c) PHOSPHATES
d) N-ACETYL CYSTEINE
e) BAL

15. ABORTIFACIENTS ARE:
a) CROTON & FOLIC ACID
b) ALOES & PHENOLS
c) OLEANDER& ACONITE
d) QUININE& MADAR
e) CASTOR OIL & QUININE

16. DYING DECLARATION IS VALID ONLY WHEN:
a) RECORDED ON OATH
b) THE ACCUSED DIES
c) THE PATIENTS DIES
d) RECORDED BY THE POLICE
e) CROSS EXAMINATION IS CONDUCTED

17. COLOUR OF HYPOSTASIS IN CYANIDE POISONING IS:
a) CHERRY RED
b) PURPLE
c) GREEN
d) BRIGHT PINK
e) BLUISH BLACK

18. PROFESSIONAL DEATH SENTENCE IS AWARDED BY THE:
a) SHARIAT COURT
b) SUPREME COURT
c) HIGH COURT
d) PMDC
e) SESSION COURT

19. ACTIVATED CHARCOAL IS AN ANTIDOTE WHICH ACTS BY :
a) INHIBITING THE RECEPTOR SITES
b) CHEMICAL REACTIONS
c) ADSORPTION
d) ABSORPTION
e) CHELATION

20. THE OSSIFICATION CENTRE IN FAVOUR OF FULL TERM FOETUS SHOULD BE IN THE:
a) STERNUM
b) LOWER END OF TIBIA
c) CALCANEUM
d) LOWER END OF FEMUR
e) UPPER END OF HUMERUS

21. EXHUMATION IS ONLY HELPFUL WHEN THE CAUSE OF DEATH IS:
a) IN THE SOFT TISSUES
b) A DISEASE
c) IN THE BONY TISSUES
d) POISONING
e) IN THE HOLLOW ORGANS

22. REGARDING THE USE OF SPECIFIC ANTIDOTES:
a) PENICILLAMINE IN ZINC POISONING
b) DESFERROXAMINE IN COPPER POISONING
c) DISODIUM EDETATE IN IRON POISONING
d) ETHANOL IN METHANOL POISONING
e) NALAXONE IN CHLORINATED HC





23. THE STATEMENT RECORDED ON OATH FROM A WITNESS IS AN :
a) AFFIDAVIT
b) ORAL EVIDENCE
c) INCEPTIVE EVIDENCE
d) INDIRECT EVIDENCE
e) DYING DECLARATION

24. CHERRY RED COLOUR OF THE BLOOD IS PRESENT IN POISONING WITH:
a) NITRATES
b) ARSENIC
c) MORPHINE
d) CO
e)
f) H2S

25. SLUD SYNDROME IS PRODUCED WITH EXPOSURE TO TOXIC COMPOUNDS LIKE:
a) ERGOT ALKALOIDS
b) BEE STINGS
c) STRYCHNINE
d) ORGANOPHOSPHATES
e) STROMONIUN

26. LOCARD’S EXCHANGE PRINCIPLE IS CONCERNED WITH:
a) THE DETECTION OF POISONS
b) DACTYLOGRAPHY
c) TRACE EVIDENCE
d) IDENTIFICATION BY THIRD PARTY
e) ANTHROPOMETERY

27. DIAGNOSTIC SIGN OF ANTEMORTEM DRY FLAME BURNS IS:
a) SINGEING OF HAIR
b) BURNT CLOTHES
c) HEAT HAEMATOMA
d) SOOT PARTICLES IN TRACHEA
e) HEAT FRACTURE

28. DISQUALIFYING CONDITION FOR A DRIVING LICENSE IS:
a) NIGHT BLINDNESS
b) DEAFNESS
c) WEAK EYE SIGHT
d) TOBACCO ADDICTION
e) USE OF ALCOHOL

29. FOLLOWING IS THE CRITERIA FOR CERTIFICATION OF DEATH EXCLUDING:
a) BILATERAL FIXED DILATATION OF PUPIL
b) COMPLETE ABSENCE OF REFLEXES
c) COMPLETE ABSENCE OF RESPIRATION
d) FLAT EEG FOR ATLEAST 3 HOURS
e) FALLING BLOOD PRESSURE

30. ALL ARE EARLY PHYSICAL CHANGES OF DEATH EXCEPT:
a) PRIMARY FLACCIDITY
b) RIGOR MORTIS
c) FALL OF BODY TEMPERATURE
d) SHIFTING OF BLOOD WITHIN THE VASCULAR NETWORK
e) DRYING AND HAZINESS OF CORNEA
……………

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